Meaning for every 16-20 ounces of silver you had in coinage (actual silver content only) you had the equivalent purchasing power of 1 oz of gold in coinage. I believe the Roman gold Aureus had roughly 8 grams in gold content (at that time in the 1st century CE: it was debased over time by different Emperors to raise money) so if you lived back then you would have needed 148-160 grams of silver in the form of Roman silver denarii or some other Ancient currency to match it’s purchasing power. But the article did not explain why it was so low back then. Even 100 years ago the ratio was much much lower than now. $20 in 1923 Peace Dollars contained roughly 16 oz in silver (15.4 ozt to be precise) and they had the exact same purchasing power as a 1923 $20 Gold Double Eagle which was roughly 1 oz of gold. So the ratio was also roughly 16 to 1 as recently as 100 years ago. Now the ratio is approximately 67 to 1 and I’m wondering if there is rhyme or reason behind that? Is it because more silver is being mined and it’s become more plentiful than gold then it was in those days? Or is it just market manipulation of silver prices?