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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;desertgem, post: 945443, member: 15199&quot;]If I understand the article correctly, the gold was &quot;leased/loaned&quot; in exchange for the foreign currency rather than outright sold. This could be that the owner of the gold saw more growth in the currencies obtained than in the PM itself. The arrangement most likely contains the payback conditions. One is betting that the value of gold is going to decrease compared to the currencies, and the other the reverse. Same if a person faces a decision to buy/sell gold today. IMO.</p><p><br /></p><p>Jim[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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