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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;mlov43, post: 3599046, member: 16729&quot;]But do you see how the government can RENOUNCE the seigniorage, ie. not make the &quot;receiver&quot; pay for the coins?&nbsp;&nbsp; </p><p><br /></p><p>That&#039;s the SEIGNIORAGE FUNDING MODEL, Doug!&nbsp; </p><p><br /></p><p>The USA has always only used surcharge funding for US Olympics coins.</p><p><br /></p><p>In the 1972 Munich Olympics case:&nbsp; The German government handed over the coins that the German Mint made to the Munich Olympic Committee. The Committee sold their coins at face-value, with no markup in the form of a surcharge added on top of the sale prices to the customers.&nbsp; T<b>he German government did NOT ask to be &quot;paid back&quot; for the coins</b>.&nbsp;&nbsp; They SURRENDERED THE SEIGNIORAGE.&nbsp; THAT&#039;s how the Germans funded their Olympic and post-Olympic expenses in that Olympics.</p><p><br /></p><p>Does that make sense?&nbsp; Good.</p><p><br /></p><p>SO:&nbsp; My OP question still stands.&nbsp; Why would an Olympic organizing committee want to purchase the seigniorage of only the gold coins in its commemorative coin program?[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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