Featured The Last Of The Romans

Discussion in 'Ancient Coins' started by kevin McGonigal, May 18, 2020.

  1. kevin McGonigal

    kevin McGonigal Well-Known Member

    I understand that Italy post WW I tried to take some of the disputed islands from the defeat of the Ottomans during the Great War. Are you sure, or was your lecturer sure, that the marines were not from the Italian navy?
     
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  3. kevin McGonigal

    kevin McGonigal Well-Known Member

    I confess to this as well. While the late Empire, post Constantine the Great makes for great study, I stop active collecting circa Theodosius I. I guess I like the images on the coins to look something like real people.
     
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  4. Voulgaroktonou

    Voulgaroktonou Well-Known Member

    Yes. This was pre WWI. Also pre 1900. His point of mentioning the incident in his talk was to illustrate the continuity of the concept of Romanitas in modern Hellenism. In modern Greek, the adjective "ρωμαίικος" means "Greek".

     
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  5. Voulgaroktonou

    Voulgaroktonou Well-Known Member

    This is true! While I love eastern Roman coins, my wife uses the argument that some of the images on the coins provide examples of space aliens interbreeding with eastern Mediterranean populations in late antiquity! :)
     
  6. ancient coin hunter

    ancient coin hunter 3rd Century Usurper

    I'm starting to get more and more Byzantine coins. Partly because I am fairly close to getting a coin of each personage during the Roman Imperial period and need to expand my horizons. I agree about the alien nature of some of the coins. A coin of Justin II and Leontia I got last week shows two figures with big heads and large eyes, reminiscent of the so called "greys" from Zeta Reticuli...:nailbiting:
     
  7. Alegandron

    Alegandron "ΤΩΙ ΚΡΑΤΙΣΤΩΙ..." ΜΕΓΑΣ ΑΛΕΞΑΝΔΡΟΣ, June 323 BCE

    LOL... today we call them CARTOONS!!! :)
     
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  8. kevin McGonigal

    kevin McGonigal Well-Known Member

    I think I saw that program on channel 666 just last week.
     
  9. Voulgaroktonou

    Voulgaroktonou Well-Known Member

    Yes, they interviewed her! :)
     
  10. AussieCollector

    AussieCollector Moderator Moderator

    I love this sort of discussion! It brings me happiness :woot:

    I hear what you're saying, but your argument speaks to my original comment around "but they weren't real Romans."

    Firstly, we shouldn't conflate Rome with Roman Empire. Yes, that's where it started, but it's not where it ended. As you’d know, Constantine the Great established Constantinople as THE capital of the Roman Empire. It was later split between Eastern and Western Roman Emperors, but it was indeed the capital at the time (not Rome), and the continued capital for the Roman Emperor in the East. Rome wasn't even the capital for the western part of the Empire after 402 AD - Ravenna was the capital. Does that mean that the (Western) Roman Empire ceased to exist in 402 AD? Or even when Constantine made Constantinople the capital? Of course not, the Roman Empire was more than where its capital was.

    Given that Constantinople was the capital of the Empire, and later the Capital for the eastern territories, who holds the city of Rome becomes less important when discussing the continuation of the Empire, except as a 'symbol' from where the Roman Empire came from. Holding Constantinople for 1,000 years, almost uninterrupted, absolutely does mean something.

    In re to Charlemagne, I haven't given it much thought to be honest. Perhaps? But I don't know enough about it.

    But there are a range of differences. Even if you put aside the differences between a continuation of the same peoples in the location, culture, Senate, customs, military style and traditions, I think the absolute fundamental difference – which is the critical point in this discussion – is that the Eastern Roman Empire was a direct and legal continuation of the eastern half of the Empire. No one else was. Not Charlemagne. Not the so called Holy Roman Empire. No one.

    I won’t get into discussion around the definitions of an Empire, and I think it’s fair to say it was no longer an Empire. But does that matter? It was the legal continuation of what was left of the Empire.

    And yes, I’ve seen the argument around 1204 AD before. And I do think an argument could be mounted. My response would be, governments in exile are nothing new, and I think it’s accepted that when governments in exile restore their throne/country, they are that same country. Otherwise, half of Europe ended in WW2, and we now have an entirely new Europe. When the same culture and people restore their country and seat of power, it is restoration. If you like, you can call it the Restored Roman Empire?
     
  11. hotwheelsearl

    hotwheelsearl Well-Known Member

    About Charlemagne - I don’t believe that the Holy Roman Empire was considered a necessarily a continuation of the Roman Empire.

    I thought it was made of Franks and Germanic people’s who were not at all related linguistically or culturally to old Rome.

    I thought that the HRE was sort of a papal “state” of sorts, and didn’t nexessaeily claim to be a continuation of the actual Roman Empire, ie, the Roman Empire started by Augustus and ended by Julius Nepos.

    So to that, I say that Charlemagne and the HRE was never truly “Roman” in any real sense.
     
  12. DonnaML

    DonnaML Well-Known Member

    Couldn't one argue that in at least a few respects the Vatican is the successor of the Roman Empire? Pontifex Maximus and all that sort of thing?
     
  13. DonnaML

    DonnaML Well-Known Member

    “The Holy Roman Empire was neither Holy, nor Roman, nor an Empire.” Voltaire, 1756.
     
  14. AussieCollector

    AussieCollector Moderator Moderator

    Yes, I was thinking about that when writing my post.

    Of the western territories, perhaps. I have to admit though, I haven't studied it like I have the ERE/Byzantium/Greece/Anatolia, so I'm unclear as to whether there was an extermination event in Rome between 474 AD and the establishment of the Papal States, and whether senior Roman houses from the WRE formed it.

    But maybe, particularly given the Papal States roots are grounded in the ERE under Justinian I (Restored WRE?). I don't have an educated enough background on the topic to give a definitive view either way.
     
  15. NicholasMaximus

    NicholasMaximus Well-Known Member

    @AussieCollector

    I love these discussions as well, because there are really no right or wrong answers. You make some good points. However, if I am arguing in favor of Justinian being the last true Roman emperor, I am not getting hung up on the city of Rome itself or the post 476 AD distinction.

    I do believe that the most correct answer to this question lies somewhere between Justinian and Constantine XI. You have a slow chipping away of what made the empire truly "roman" throughout the years.

    You have the linguistic transition under Heraclius, the shift to the thematic system and away from a traditional roman provincial system (which might have happened under him as well), but likely happened in the 660's under Constans II. You have the growing influence of Christianity over the legal system. The senate also becomes an increasingly cosmetic feature.

    Eventually, these changes, paired with the lack of connection to Rome/ Italy (which is just one small piece of the puzzle, not a big deal in itself) makes the empire just feel like a different entity altogether. It is hard to quantify in some ways.

    I don't think your point about WW2 is a great parallel for the 1204 argument for a couple of reasons. European countries were controlled for a much shorter time, and then the same governments from before were reinstated (or at least many of the same people comprised government). Here, we are talking about a 60 year gap, with an entirely new dynasty "reclaiming" power.

    @hotwheelsearl

    One last thought, I am certainly not saying that Charlemagne should be considered a roman emperor. I am actually pointing out that a non-roman, also was coronated using imperial porphyry, over 600 years earlier than Constantine XI. He didn't do this because of a roman connection, but likely because of the symbolism related to Christ. It is interesting though that Charlemagne was referred to as "emperor of the romans" and he did have that denarius with the latin inscription "Karolus Imperator Augustus".

    So I think the use of Imperial Porphyry, extended beyond roman tradition, and had already become a Christian tradition.
     
  16. Victor_Clark

    Victor_Clark all my best friends are dead Romans Dealer

    When talking about the Byzantine Empire, I have always thought it is less important what we call them and more important what they called themselves--Romaioi.
     
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  17. AussieCollector

    AussieCollector Moderator Moderator

    Great post and discussion, I enjoyed reading it, and agree with much of it.

    In terms of it feeling different, yes. True. But empires do evolve. I mean, did the Empire in 474 AD feel the same as it did under Augustus? Let's face it, the religion wasn't even the same, let alone the armies and so forth. Yet we still see it as Roman.

    And you're right, my WW2 example isn't as great as it could have been. But I think the point stands that restored is restored. Otherwise we have to start coming up with arbitrary time frames of how long you can be displaced before it's no longer restored. And yes, it was a new dynasty, but the Nicaean Empire was formed by the rightful and recognised heir to the ERE throne. And there is a clear and documented connection that the Palaiologos dynasty was a continuation of that throne in exile, as co-emperor at first, and then as ERE emperor following the restoration.

    And also let's not forget, ERE was not exactly the same as the western feudal states, where a royal family was established, and that was generally that (asides from different branches of that royal family making counter claims to the thonre during crisis). In the ERE, the throne switched between aristocratic families all the time. And the Palaiologos family was absolutely ERE aristocracy. Combined with the above point, it makes a pretty compelling argument.
     
  18. kevin McGonigal

    kevin McGonigal Well-Known Member

    And remember the quip of Voltaire (I think it was him) that the Holy Roman Empire was neither holy, Roman nor an empire.
     
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  19. kevin McGonigal

    kevin McGonigal Well-Known Member

    Having spent seven years in a Catholic seminary I think I can say that in my observations the Church has historically always been more Roman (official Latin language, its Canon Law that Justinian would have been comfortable with, its monarch assisted by a curia) than catholic in the sense of universal, at the very least until, perhaps, quite recently.
     
    Last edited: May 19, 2020
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  20. Tejas

    Tejas Well-Known Member

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  21. Tejas

    Tejas Well-Known Member

    I would. The title Roman Emperor was an idea or an ideal that was as real for the Frankish King and Roman Emperor Karl as it was for Justinian or the various Roman puppet emperors of the 5th century, who wielded no real power.

    PS. I don't like the name Charlemagne, which is ahistorical and kind of suggest that the he was Romance-speaking. Karl was born in Aachen (Germany), meaning that East Frankish was his mother tongue.
     
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