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<p>[QUOTE="Publius2, post: 25287826, member: 105571"]Back to your original question. Let's say you travel to a two-day coin show and have a total of $1000 expenses and at that coin show you engage in the following activities out of a total possible 16 hours (8 hours per day) of possible activities:</p><p><br /></p><p>1) Giving coin presentations - 2 hours</p><p>2) Attending coin presentations - 2 hours</p><p>3) Attending club meetings - 2 hours</p><p>4) Socializing - 2 hours</p><p>5) Selling coins on the bourse - 2 hours</p><p>6) Shopping and buying on the bourse - 6 hours</p><p><br /></p><p>Of those activities, only Number 6 has a direct and indisputable nexus to the cost of acquiring any coins you buy. I think you could probably pass a tax audit on capital gains basis with #6 (See note below). Activities 1 through 5 either have no direct nexus to the cost of acquiring coins or only a nebulous connection. It would be very easy to make the case that you would have spent money on these activities even if you never bought a coin, therefore they aren't costs associated with the acquisition.</p><p><br /></p><p>Note: Since your hours spent purchasing coins is less than a majority of the time you spent at the show, IRS could argue that you would have gone to the show anyway even if you didn't intend to buy any coins. This kind of argument has been applied by them successfully before in other areas - think home office tax deductions.</p><p> </p><p>In this hypothetical example with only Activity Number 6 counted toward costs, the portion of the $1000 of expenses to attend the show would be:</p><p><br /></p><p>6 hours divided by 16 hours = 0.375 = The portion of expenses directly attributable to acquisition of the coins.</p><p><br /></p><p>The amount that could be applied to the acquisition of coins = 0.375 times $1000 = $375.</p><p><br /></p><p>The acceptable/approved/preferred methodology of applying a portion of that $375 to each coin you purchased is certainly open to debate in the absence of an IRS-mandated method.</p><p><br /></p><p>But from this example, you can see how if you're going to use trip costs as part of your basis, you should at least have a methodology that your records can support and that at least has some rationale that doesn't quite literally stink of tax evasion.</p><p><br /></p><p>Of course this whole basis discussion is irrelevant if the coins are inherited because the basis then becomes the post-mortem appraisal performed by the heirs.</p><p><br /></p><p>Disclaimer: I'm not a tax lawyer, a tax accountant, an IRS employee or any kind of person who professes to any expertise on these tax matters. You should consult credible tax experts.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>
[QUOTE="Publius2, post: 25287826, member: 105571"]Back to your original question. Let's say you travel to a two-day coin show and have a total of $1000 expenses and at that coin show you engage in the following activities out of a total possible 16 hours (8 hours per day) of possible activities: 1) Giving coin presentations - 2 hours 2) Attending coin presentations - 2 hours 3) Attending club meetings - 2 hours 4) Socializing - 2 hours 5) Selling coins on the bourse - 2 hours 6) Shopping and buying on the bourse - 6 hours Of those activities, only Number 6 has a direct and indisputable nexus to the cost of acquiring any coins you buy. I think you could probably pass a tax audit on capital gains basis with #6 (See note below). Activities 1 through 5 either have no direct nexus to the cost of acquiring coins or only a nebulous connection. It would be very easy to make the case that you would have spent money on these activities even if you never bought a coin, therefore they aren't costs associated with the acquisition. Note: Since your hours spent purchasing coins is less than a majority of the time you spent at the show, IRS could argue that you would have gone to the show anyway even if you didn't intend to buy any coins. This kind of argument has been applied by them successfully before in other areas - think home office tax deductions. In this hypothetical example with only Activity Number 6 counted toward costs, the portion of the $1000 of expenses to attend the show would be: 6 hours divided by 16 hours = 0.375 = The portion of expenses directly attributable to acquisition of the coins. The amount that could be applied to the acquisition of coins = 0.375 times $1000 = $375. The acceptable/approved/preferred methodology of applying a portion of that $375 to each coin you purchased is certainly open to debate in the absence of an IRS-mandated method. But from this example, you can see how if you're going to use trip costs as part of your basis, you should at least have a methodology that your records can support and that at least has some rationale that doesn't quite literally stink of tax evasion. Of course this whole basis discussion is irrelevant if the coins are inherited because the basis then becomes the post-mortem appraisal performed by the heirs. Disclaimer: I'm not a tax lawyer, a tax accountant, an IRS employee or any kind of person who professes to any expertise on these tax matters. You should consult credible tax experts.[/QUOTE]
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