I was looking at the mintage numbers for French coins in the 1980s and saw they were very low yet most of them weren't in sets only. Any reason why?
It's a bit of a mystery to me. My theory is that while there wasn't any demand for the coins in Metropolitan France, there may have been a need for them in the territories (This is officially the case for 1971-79 1 centime mintages). However, when you compare the availability of many of these coins to their mintages, it doesn't add up. I personally just call them set-only and save myself the headache.
