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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;GDJMSP, post: 1308194, member: 112&quot;]Well, the Utah Territory and the New Mexico Territory were both created in 1850, so I&#039;d say yes the law applied there. But the Arizona Territory did not come along until 1858, so for a year or so the law would not have applied there.</p><p><br /></p><p>This map will show you what happened and when - (other than New Mexico and Arizona)</p><p><br /></p><p>[ATTACH]147069.vB[/ATTACH]</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>And the Utah Territory included a whole lot more than what we call Utah today - </p><p><br /></p><p>[ATTACH]147070.vB[/ATTACH]</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>But basically to answer your question the law applied as parts of the land became actual Territories. Before that, it didn&#039;t.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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