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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;Tom B, post: 1533109, member: 11854&quot;]I&#039;ll write out the rationale for my post. However, considering that the OP appears to have neither received an actual price nor a receipt, the discussion is purely theoretical, at best. Additionally, I would not run a business either way listed below, but if one is a casual hobbyist then it should be fine.</p><p><br /></p><p>In a mixed lot what I wrote previously can be considered his cost. He paid $460 for $21.90 FV silver and determined that the silver purchase was a blend of two lots that he acquired together. One lot was $15 FV that he paid $340 for and the other lot was $6.90 that he paid $120 for and both came from this original $21.90 FV lot. This can be done to break the lot down since various coins are assigned differing values, but the entire lot ends up adding to the cost to acquire. However, if this is done then the $6.90 FV that is recorded as a $120 cost to acquire must use that number when and if it is sold. If done this way then the buyer ended up paying $340 ($15 FV in dimes) plus $160 (cash) to obtain the Morgan dollar for a cost of $500. Alternatively, the lot can be broken down as a cost per coin as you had done where the cost is $2.10 per dime and that is just as easy to do. In fact, it may even be easier to do. The Morgan dollar is then acquired for $315 ($15 FV in dimes) plus $160 (cash) for a cost of $475.</p><p><br /></p><p>In a real transaction, though, I don&#039;t know that this could be considered a like-trade. Therefore, each transaction would have to be recorded independent of the other. In such a case the buyer had an offer of $340 for the dimes in addition to $160 cash, which comes to $500 cost to obtain the Morgan.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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