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<p>[QUOTE="NPCoin, post: 652366, member: 5629"]If the insurance is paid for by the buyer, but simply included in the S&H, and it is agreed that the seller would file any claim and reimburse the buyer, the seller has become a delegate to the buyer's duty. The buyer would still be holding the risk of loss, regardless. And, yes, it has already been demonstrated in court that the buyer does, in fact, have the liability in a shipment contract as the normal.</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>What Heritage does is in accordance with their own business practices, but is not necessarily based on requirements of law. And, you have presented two separate issues here. First, you present a lost item. In that case, the law demonstrates that the buy has risk of loss. Heritage plays the good guy by assuming the role of delegate in processing the insurance. In the second, you have the instance of possible non-conformance.</p><p><br /></p><p>Now, with the non-conformance, if the items was damaged in transit and can be shown to be as such, again the buyer holds the risk of loss. However, if the item is not in the condition agreed to through the contract, the the agreement is breached, and the seller is legally allotted time to make things right.</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>Yes and no. It depends on what kind of wrong you are inferring. Is it legally wrong? Morally wrong? Ethically wrong? It all depends on the business practices of the merchant. Is it legally wrong for the seller to demand the buyer insure his goods and that the buyer pay for the insurance? No, unless he did not utilize the moneys to properly insure the goods for their full market/sales value. Is the merchant ethically wrong? Depends on if he complied with the buyer's request in obtaining the insurance (ie. no third party insurance, USPS insurance only). Is it morally wrong to do so? That all depends on the moral views of each individual who considers the scenario.</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>And this is the misconception that I am trying to bring to light. It has always been a perceived "responsibility", not necessarily a legal one, with regards to the contract forms we have discussed.</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>I hope the citations help you to understand the situation. A leisure reading of the court opinion will shed even more light, as the Cornell Law version of the UCC does not include the official comments.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>
[QUOTE="NPCoin, post: 652366, member: 5629"]If the insurance is paid for by the buyer, but simply included in the S&H, and it is agreed that the seller would file any claim and reimburse the buyer, the seller has become a delegate to the buyer's duty. The buyer would still be holding the risk of loss, regardless. And, yes, it has already been demonstrated in court that the buyer does, in fact, have the liability in a shipment contract as the normal. What Heritage does is in accordance with their own business practices, but is not necessarily based on requirements of law. And, you have presented two separate issues here. First, you present a lost item. In that case, the law demonstrates that the buy has risk of loss. Heritage plays the good guy by assuming the role of delegate in processing the insurance. In the second, you have the instance of possible non-conformance. Now, with the non-conformance, if the items was damaged in transit and can be shown to be as such, again the buyer holds the risk of loss. However, if the item is not in the condition agreed to through the contract, the the agreement is breached, and the seller is legally allotted time to make things right. Yes and no. It depends on what kind of wrong you are inferring. Is it legally wrong? Morally wrong? Ethically wrong? It all depends on the business practices of the merchant. Is it legally wrong for the seller to demand the buyer insure his goods and that the buyer pay for the insurance? No, unless he did not utilize the moneys to properly insure the goods for their full market/sales value. Is the merchant ethically wrong? Depends on if he complied with the buyer's request in obtaining the insurance (ie. no third party insurance, USPS insurance only). Is it morally wrong to do so? That all depends on the moral views of each individual who considers the scenario. And this is the misconception that I am trying to bring to light. It has always been a perceived "responsibility", not necessarily a legal one, with regards to the contract forms we have discussed. I hope the citations help you to understand the situation. A leisure reading of the court opinion will shed even more light, as the Cornell Law version of the UCC does not include the official comments.[/QUOTE]
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