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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;Restitutor, post: 4646948, member: 112621&quot;]Your response is similar to what I would have made. The areas of Greece were no less Greek in 200AD than 500AD, and yet in 200AD “Greece” was Roman. If religion is a factor then the Roman Empire was officially gone once Theodosius came about. </p><p><br /></p><p>I think a fun question to consider would be: if all provinces in the West fell in 476 <b>except</b> the Italian peninsula, and the peninsula remained part of the Empire until 1453, would we call it the Roman or Byzantine Empire?[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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