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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;iPen, post: 2428203, member: 69760&quot;]This is similar in concept, but uses paper notes as an example (image below).</p><p><br /></p><p>If a note during Germany&#039;s hyperinflation episode lost its intended value before even being released, and the government/mint decided to stamp it with a higher denomination to keep up with inflation, is that considered damage? Or, is it <i>technically</i> just another step in their &quot;striking&quot; (printing) process?</p><p><br /></p><p>Now, if it had <i>already</i> been issued, and recalled for whatever duration it was released into circulation, then is it damage and not another step in the striking/printing process for coins/notes?</p><p><br /></p><p>Similarly, if it&#039;s another coin used as a base for counter-stamping, then is the base coin not only a planchet, but also <i>intended</i> to look exactly that way as-is? Whereas, a damaged planchet coin was not intended to look that way when struck; the base coin of a C/S was intended to look that way, otherwise, they would have stamped over the entire coin. So, isn&#039;t it the <i>intention of how it should look like when issued </i>that determines if it&#039;s a damaged coin? That would mean again that from the perspective of the original base coin, it&#039;s damaged; but from the perspective of the counter-stamped coin, it&#039;s not damaged (assuming no other damages/Details grade on the coin such as a cleaning/polishing).</p><p><br /></p><p><br /></p><p>Pic from the &#039;net:</p><p><br /></p><p><img src="https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/3/34/GER-113-Reichsbanknote-1_Billion_Mark_(1923).jpg" class="bbCodeImage wysiwygImage" alt="" unselectable="on" />[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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