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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;Jason Hoffpauir, post: 2548299, member: 67527&quot;]So I just need some expert opinions for the forum members on this one...I am sure there is a simple reason for this but it just seems ridiculous.&nbsp; Here it goes:</p><p><br /></p><p>&nbsp;&nbsp; &nbsp; Lets say a person buys a coin from a coin dealer and takes is &quot;out&quot; of the holder to get it authenticated only to have the dealer say that he broke an implied contract when it was taken out of the holder. How can this be correct.&nbsp; My first inclination is that once the buyer buys the coin is his.&nbsp; </p><p><br /></p><p>&nbsp;&nbsp; &nbsp; He owns it and whatever he does with the coin(with the exception of purposely destroying it) is his business.&nbsp; What guarantee is broken?&nbsp; How can this be a legal problem for the seller (coin dealer) if it was bought by the buyer?&nbsp; I understand that the wise thing to do is to have the dealer authenticate it before he buys it; but then the seller has to inquire the costs.&nbsp; Any input is appreciated and please no fighting...I am just wondering.&nbsp; Thanks in advance guys.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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