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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;+VGO.DVCKS, post: 6381441, member: 110504&quot;]Many thanks, [USER=51347]@Alegandron[/USER].&nbsp; And, to cut to the chase, Yes, Absolutely!&nbsp; During most of the whole medieval period, the Germanic penny (/pfennig, Scandinavian penning) was the direct equivalent of the Latin denarius /denier, (It.) denaro, (Sp.) dinero (Catalan) diner.&nbsp; As other people here have pointed out, the pre-decimal UK use of &#039;d.&#039; as an abbreviation for &#039;pence&#039; goes back to the same period.&nbsp; --While it would be easy to correlate this to the French influence from the Normans onward (...this is where you get the linguistic evolution from the Verrry Low-German Old English to Middle English, and the first wave of the Latinization of the language), I&#039;m sure it ultimately goes back to Anglo-Saxon times, as a concession to the immediate international community.</p><p>...Oops, Oh, Right.&nbsp; The term &#039;denier&#039; is now applied to most of the chronological and geographic range of medieval France, from the Carolingians onward.&nbsp; The denomination continues, in some form, through the last Bourbon monarchs of the 18th century.&nbsp; ...Granted, by that time, they&#039;re issuing multiple deniers in bronze.&nbsp; Kind of like the American cent and British penny over comparable intervals; &#039;how are the mighty fallen.&#039;</p><p>I&#039;m clueless about how, in any number of Islamic series, the &#039;dinar&#039; migrated from being a silver /billon denomination to a gold one.&nbsp; Can anyone help here?[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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