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<p>[QUOTE=&quot;GDJMSP, post: 1258181, member: 112&quot;]Chris - you&#039;re making incorrect assumptions here. </p><p><br /></p><p>US dollar until 1840 -&nbsp; .8924 silver, 26.96 grams</p><p><br /></p><p>Spanish dollar prior to 1800 - .9170, .9030, .8960 silver depending date (with the majority being the 2 former), 27.06 grams</p><p><br /></p><p>The mint melting the Spanish dollars down is how the depositors were able to profit.</p><p><br /></p><p>Now as to why they were able to trade 100 US for more Spanish, I believe it was political and a lack of trust in the Spanish dollar more than anything else. After 1800 the governments in Mexico and South America (which is where all the Spanish dollars came from) were in great turmoil, revolution was afoot. And Napoleon was running amok in Europe. People just didn&#039;t want Spanish dollars any more because they could no longer get a fair exchange on them anywhere else in the world, only in the US could they do that. So they wanted US dollars. They could take US dollars anyplace and get a fair exchange rate. That&#039;s why they could trade 100 US dollars for more Spanish dollars, outside the US. The West Indies just happened to be the closest place and the easiest to get to.[/QUOTE]</p><p><br /></p>

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