I am wondering how long the term .999 has been around in the world of numismatics? I'm sure it wasn't used in the 60's, does anyone know? What's the oldest silver round that you have? Pics, if ya got em?
So, an 1830 Guernsey 8 Doubles was 0.999 silver? That seems awfully early for the refining technology.
I'm not sure what that link is talking about. But the Guernsey 8 doubles was a copper coin, not a silver coin.
I've never been able to figure out why the people of todays world assume that the people of the old world did not have to technology to refine metals. Nothing could be further from the truth. Even a thousand years ago people could pick any fineness of gold and silver that you wanted and make it for you. If for example you wanted .986 gold, no problem. If you wanted .973 gold, again no problem. If you wanted .999 gold, they could do it. In fact they did it, any time they wanted to. Same thing with silver.
Refining metals (and removing trace impurities) is a pretty tricky and complicated process. Removing those last couple thousandths of a percent of unwanted material gets exponentially more difficult. Still, I'd like to learn more about this. What are the earliest .986 gold items that you're aware of? What about 0.999 gold & silver items? I don't have anything in my collection that predates WW2, but I don't have a comprehensive group by any means.
I can't defend the link, I only searched for it and it was the best fit with the question. It's confusing to read so I didn't comment. I agree that ancient technology was much farther advanced than is taught in our schools. Archeologists are surprised all the time by what they find.
Not true. You just repeat the same steps. Think of it this way, if they could pick and choose and make gold of any fineness they wanted, down to the thousandth, and do it consistently. Then why does it seem that it would be diffucult to make .999 gold ? The Venetians started minting their gold ducats in 1274. Every single coin was precisely .986 gold. They made them exact fineness for over 700 years, every single coin. Pretty much the entire known world, over 300 countries, copied the ducat and they also issued their own ducats - all of them .986 gold. The Netherlands today still issues a ducat of the same design that they have used since 1586. And in medieval times, up until the 1600's anyway, many countries issued coins that even today listed as being 1.000 gold. It wasn't ever that they didn't have the technology. They purposely chose the fineness of their gold coins.
I agree with you Doug that they chose their fineness. But, there is a discrepancy between that and saying they had the ability to do .999 fine. Say the Venetians had a source of gold .989 or .993 fine, then it is easy to blend down to a standard. This is something even the first electrum coins in Lydia did. However, this is different than saying they had a source of 1.000 pure or effectively .999 pure and blended down. Taking away these last few impurities like others have said become progressively more cost and technology prohibitive. Without proof of consistent .999 pure ingots or coins from antiquity, (which I have never seen proof of), one cannot prove they have the ability to make this fine a product. If you have a good metallurgical source to cite .999 pure gold being consistently made in antiquity I would love to read it. Another way to say it would be if the Venetians COULD make .999 gold consistently, why did they settle on .986? Wouldn't it make more sense they settled on .986 since that was the highest fineness they could consistently produce on an ongoing basis? I doubt that .014 of impurities really made their gold coins stand up better in commerce, which is why US coins were never struck .999. Doug, yes I also know you have a book listing medieval gold coins as 1.000 fineness. I would like to hear what metallurgy tests they have to back that claim up.
Yes I've had a couple from the 80's that I sold, here's one from 1969. Anyone got anything earlier with .999? http://cgi.ebay.com/1969-BENJAMIN-D...941?pt=LH_DefaultDomain_0&hash=item563f13e92d
Um, I'm pretty sure that metallurgy isn't that simple. There are all sorts of processes that let you increase purity up to a specific level, but no further. I don't know whether that's true of the specific processes that were used for gold or silver in antiquity -- it's been many years since I looked at them -- but I have my doubts, especially about silver. (Purifying gold is a lot easier than purifying silver, for a variety of reasons.) We need BadThad here!
As I looked at this example a little closer you can tell that it's been messed with and it don't even say .999. Oh well, back to the drawing board! Anyone got any old .999?
According to academia of today, silver was the 3rd metal discovered in aprox 4000 BC. Since silver is able to be found in its native state, it is safe to say that "pure" silver has been used since then. Was their "pure" silver .999? With the amount used I would bet that at least one item fashioned from silver found in its native state was that pure. But we are just splitting hairs. Since mercury was in common use by 750 BC for amalgamations I would hypothesis that silver in a purity of 3 9's has been around and used for 2500 years at least. Sources http://neon.mems.cmu.edu/cramb/Processing/history.html http://mygeologypage.ucdavis.edu/cowen/~GEL115/115ch6.html http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cupellation http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metals_of_antiquity Now back to the OP's question I do not know the first time that .999 was used as a term as it is applied to coinage.
OK, let me start by asking what I consider to be the most obvious question. And that is precisely why most people never even think of it - because it is the most obvious. Ya ready ? How in the world would anyone know that the metal was .986 or .900, or whatever number you pick; if they did not also know how to achieve 1.000 ? Do you see what I mean ? To be even be able to measure down to the thousandths of a percent to judge fineness you must first have the ability to produce 1.000 purity or else you have nothing to even measure it against. Now, as to your question about why they chose a given number of fineness. People always assume that the reason coinage metal was debased was to make the coins hold up better. And while that is a valid reason, it is also a reason that was never even thought of until much later in history. You see, people would not even know that they had a problem with coins of pure metal holding up in commerce unless they first produced coins of pure metal and then discovered that they wore out too easily and too soon. That is also something that is so blatantly obvious that it is overlooked. But even besides that, coins holding up in circulation was not a problem at all until much, much later in history. The reason it was not a problem is because gold coins were so much money that they really didn't circulate in commerce, at least not in the way that we think of circulation today. So wear was not even a problem. Now, to the real reason, the original reason, that coinage metal was debased - seignorage. You see, monarchs chose whatever fineness they wanted to use purely at their whim. The debasement of the metal had nothing to do with their not being able to produce pure metal. It only had to do with the cost of producing the coins and the image of himself (ego) that the monarch wished to present to the world. And the greater a monarch's finacial difficulties then the more debased his coinage was at any given time. You see, back then image, stature if you will, was everything. The way other kings and queens perceived you played a very large part in how much power or influence over other countries you actually had. And if your coinage was of a higher fineness than other country's coinage then you gained stature. So unless they were in trouble financially monarchs tried to produce coinage of as high a fineness as they could. But rarely did they do it at a cost to them - thus seignorage. Seignorage was, is, and always has been the primary reason for debased coinage. It was never because they could not produce pure metal, it was because they did not want to produce pure metal. It was precisely because the Venetians chose to use gold of such a high fineness that made the ducat the most successful, the most widely accepted and trusted coin that the world has ever known. The high purity of the ducat, and the consistency with which it was produced by every country made the ducat the preferred choice of all coinage. It's not some rare book, it Friedbergs. A standard reference for gold coinage. You'll find the same references in Krause as well. As for tests, you'd have to ask the authors of the books, not me.
I've been Googling around for half an hour or so, and I'm still having some trouble turning up hard numbers. But SoaringEagle's second link includes this final paragraph: For cupellation, which I believe was about the best process available until the Renaissance, it looks like the limit of purity was somewhere around 98-99%. Repeating the process would just transfer more and more silver into the slag; the silver left behind wouldn't be any more pure. To get to 99.9% or better, it looks like you need chlorine-based or electrolytic techniques, both of which are exclusively modern (post-1800). Yes, you could travel back in time with modern knowledge and cobble together a system to do better. No, there is no record of anyone doing so. Now, here's an item stamped "999/1000" and claimed to be from the "mid-1800s": .999 Fine Silver Perfume Bottle. Very Cool Mid 1800's
Oh, my. Okay, please point me to a source of 1.000 purity gold. Gold is relatively easy to purify, and we have all the resources of modern metallurgy at our fingertips. Surely someone must be producing it, right? Wrong. Well, almost wrong -- materials scientists do use atomic force microscopy to manipulate single, isolated gold atoms, so you could safely claim that those are 100% pure gold. They've even produced nanoclusters with dozens of gold atoms, and if you work at it, you can produce such clusters with a very low probability of including any other atoms. But gather enough of them together to make a block that you can weigh, measure, and use as a standard? No. Not even today. The purest materials that we can produce in bulk today are the semiconductors used to make integrated circuits. Bulk silicon is the basis for these chips, and today we can routinely purify it to better than .999999 (<1 ppm impurity), with certain contaminants controlled at an even lower level (here's a reference). But to get to that level or purity, you need process that are ridiculously complex, finicky, and EXPENSIVE. So, how do you determine that something is .999 pure if you don't have a 1.000 pure sample for comparison? That's actually really easy. There are ways to separate out and measure contaminants -- it's just that you can't do it without introducing other contaminants. So, for example, suppose I've got a gram of silver. I could take one tenth of it (100 mg), do a separation that gets out 99% or so of the copper it contains, and measure that at (say) 10 micrograms. That shows that the sample was 0.0001 (0.01%) copper. You can do similar procedures to measure other common contaminants, add them all up, and you know how much of your sample was not silver -- and, from that, it's easy to tell how much was silver. This is a branch of chemistry called "quantitative analysis", it's very, very old, and it has never relied on the existence of "100% pure" reference standards. Yes, there are economic reasons to debase coinage. But they also "did not want to produce pure metal" because they quickly reached a point where small increases in purity meant huge increases in expense and waste -- and, not far beyond that, where further increases in purity were not possible. At some point, I suppose we're arguing about specific numbers, and I'm short on those. But I know that "100% purity" is off the table, and I know that you don't need a pure standard to determine a sample's purity.
Well I suppose first of all we have to define pure gold. In simple terms, 24 karat is pure gold. .999 is pure gold. The point that is being questioned is whether or not the ancients - I suppose now we need to define ancients but let's just settle for a long dang time ago, say 1000 years and be done with it - could produce pure gold. I'll deal specifically with the Venetians for the sake of argument. The Venetian records still exist. If you want to look up the specific dates of the documents and the authors of the documents, you can do that. They are all referenced in the book Zecca which contains the history of the Venetian mint. Of course to see them in person you'll have to go to Venice. And then they probably won't let you see them. But for those who refuse to believe things - well, there it is. Bottom line, the ancients could produce pure gold. Just like we can today. For those who wish to believe that, then believe it and that's the end. For those who don't, there's nothing I can say to convince you so I'm not going to try anymore.
Okay, looks like we've answered the question of whether the ancients could produce "pure gold". If we define "pure gold" as "the purest gold the ancients could produce", then the answer is "yes". I'm glad we got that cleared up. Now, let's go back to the original poster's question, about how long .999 silver has been used. I've provided a link to an item stamped "999/1000" that appears to be from the mid-1800s; here's another link referring to a .999 coin produced in 1830. I've provided my reasons for believing that it probably wasn't produced much before 1800. Can anybody provide a reference indicating that it was?
OK - if 24 karat and/or .999 isn't what you call pure, you tell me how you define pure gold then. As I said earlier in this thread, the coin your link talks about, the 8 doubles, is not even a silver coin. The 8 doubles was made of copper.