Barbarian-minted coins are not my collecting area and that is why I'm asking. Sometimes when I see some coins I just got confused. Take a look at this: https://www.biddr.com/auctions/papillonnumismatic/browse?a=1262&l=1341371 The seller has not listed it as barbarian and that makes me wonder whether I'm misaatributing that Maurice-coin. Is that Maurice-coin a Barbarian-imitation? And take a look at this coin also: https://www.biddr.com/auctions/papillonnumismatic/browse?a=1262&l=1341359 After around 700 or 800 the various "barbarian" groups in Europe ceased with minting barbarian-imitation in the name of the Byzantine emperor. Am I right? But that John-coin was minted in the name of John I Tzimiskes who reigned in 969-976. How do you explain that coin? To me it doesn't look like a Byzantine one, but a barbarian-imitation. I'm just confused. Can anyone here explains me how to categorize these two coins? Were they really minted in the Byzantine Empire? It doesn't seem like they were to me. Thanks
Though neither emperor is known for high artistic quality, I think the John is pretty good. The Maurice looks a little janky, so maybe barbarous
The Maurice looks barbarous to me. The John might be official although the inscription is rather illiterate. Some of the succeeding emperor Basil II’s early solidi are somewhat similar in style, and somewhat crude.
